II. How This Verse Is Misused By Some: This verse is used by some to try to prove that the law has been done away, or at least that we don't have to keep the law, since we are justified by faith without the deeds of the law.

A. Remember that although people say you don't have to keep the law, they really don't mean this literally. Do they mean you can kill or steal or murder with impunity? No, of course not. What they do mean is that you can break the Sabbath, not tithe and not keep the Holy Days, etc. This is inconsistent and a hypocritical stance toward the law.

B. The verse does not say the "deeds of the law" are not necessary. The subject under discussion is "justification" and whether the "deeds of the law" can "justify" a person. Being justified in the biblical sense means being made just or right before God, which means having your sins forgiven and completely blotted out. The question being settled is not "Should we keep the law?" but, rather, "Does present obedience to the law somehow bring a person into a right standing before God and make up for his past sins?"

C. If a man commits a crime, his obedience to the law in the future does not make him any less guilty of his past offense. This is also true of us spiritually. Notice Romans 3:20, "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin." Paul shows us in this verse that the "deeds of the law" do not justify anyone. Now notice verses 24-28, "Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: {25} Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; {26} To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus. {27} Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? No: but by the law of faith. {28} Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."

Paul went on to explain in verses 24-27 that justification (forgiveness of sins that are past -- verse 25) can come only by grace, through Christ's sacrifice.

D. The conclusion is (verse 28) that we are justified by faith without the deeds of the law. "Without" (in the Authorized Version) could be more clearly translated "apart from" or "outside of."

IV. Scripture: Romans 6:14 "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for you are not under the law, but under grace."

V. How This Verse Is Misused By Some: Some point to this verse to try to prove we don't have to keep the law, or that it has been done away. Specifically, the argument here is that we don't have to obey the law because we are under grace, not under law.

A. Remember that although people say you don't have to keep the law, they really don't mean this literally. Do they mean you can kill or steal or murder with impunity? No, of course not. What they do mean is that you can break the Sabbath, not tithe and not keep the Holy Days, etc. This is inconsistent and a hypocritical stance toward the law.

B. This scripture does not say we don't have to obey the law. It does say we are not under the law, but under grace. The term "under the law" refers to being under the penalty of the law -- not under the jurisdiction of the law.

C. When we sin we break God's law I John 3:4 "Whosoever commits sin transgresses also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." The law has a claim over our lives. Romans 6:23 says: "For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord."

We are then under the law -- under its penalty. It is the sinner who is under the law. On the other hand, when we repent and receive God's grace, made possible through the sacrifice of Christ, we are pardoned and the penalty of death is taken away. Then we are no longer "under the law" - in other words, we are no longer under the penalty of death for having broken the law.

D. Does this give us free license to sin (break the law) because we are under grace and not under the law? Paul asks this very question in verse 15 of Romans 6, "What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace?"

Paul answers it by saying, " God forbid. {16} Know you not, that to whom you yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants you are to whom you obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?"

It is like a condemned murderer on death row waiting for execution. At the last minute the governor grants him a pardon. He is now a free man, but that does not mean he is at liberty to murder again. That would be absurd. His pardon covers only the past offense -- not future crimes.

E. If grace did away with the law, there would be no sin, because "where there is no law, there is no sin" (Romans 4:15).

The fact that sin exists and that there is a need for grace to remove the penalty of sin shows that a law is being broken and therefore that the law is still in effect today.